In my opinion, it is sort of dangerous for us to try to
say what message Shakespeare is conveying to the 17th century audience. Our own mindset
is so far removed from theirs that it is hard to know how they would have perceived
these characters.
To an audience today, it seems that
Shakespeare is saying that arranged marriages are bad and that relationships in which
the parents are able to dominate their children -- to force their children into things
like arranged marriages -- are bad too. It seems that Juliet (at the very least) would
be much better off if her parents had not tried to force her to marry who
they wanted her to marry. If her parents had acted
throughout the whole play the way that they do in Act I, she would not have
died.
So that's what I "hear" when I read this play today.
And that's how I'd answer the question. But I am not certain that that is what a 17th
century English person would have heard.
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