What signs are we given of the potential for madness of Hamlet’s part in Act I? Provide two examples.this question is from Hamlet act 1...plzz help

Many theories have been advanced with regard to Hamlet's
"madness". The most convincing view in this respect, however, is that his madness is feigned,
because Hamlet acts normally when he chooses to, and in the presence of those with whom it is
safe to do so. Besides, we should not forget that, after his talk with the ghost in Act I, he had
forewarned horatio of his intention to "put an antic disposition on". On certain occasions he
does appear to be almost crazy, as when he murders Polonius or when he leaps into Ophelia's
grave. But even such behaviour can be explained as the result of an excess of bitterness and
melancholy, and not indicative of madness. No madman would talk in his soliloquies as Hamlet
does.