This question seems to be pointing towards the gender
inequalities that existed in Austen's time in society. However, interestingly, I think that the
story could have been written with the genders reversed. Marriage was an important undertaking in
those times that could only be entered into when the male was able to properly provide for his
wife or when the wife was able to bring a fortune to the marriage. Often is was quite common for
couples, eagerly in love with each other, to have to wait for a period of years until one of them
inherited or found a position that gave them sufficient income to marry. Jane's own sister was
precisely in this situation, as she had to wait until her lover gained a parish that would give
him enough income to be able to take care of her.
Therefore,
marriage was not really a personal decision in the same way as today. There were a number of
factors that had to be thought through and a variety of people that needed to be consulted.
Families were trying to protect their rich children from marrying to those beneath them (just
look at Lady Catherine de Bourgh) and acts of persuasion were very common across both
genders.
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